| HOME | 18. Br Lee's Misconceptions |
| A. Glorified(Rom 8:30) Rom 8:30 And those whom He predestinated, these He also called; and those whom He called, these He also justified; and those whom He justified, these He also glorified. 1. When did it occur? About the time when this event did occur, all the Bible commentators, as I searched around, understand that the time is when man believed in Jesus, including br. Lee. If so, they can't explain "glorified". The Bible commentators tell various reasons. "Past tense is because the glory in the future is sure. " "Because there is no time in heaven. Past tense is according to the Hebrew grammar. " They are very busy in explaining the past tense. No! This is not the event when man believed in Jesus, but that when our Jesus Christ's crucifixion and resurrection 2,000 years ago. This is the event worked out on "Objective we". Then, all the problems are over. Through net searching, Calvin, John-Peter-LangeAMatthew-HenryAJamieson-Fausset-Brown, Wesley, Expositors Bible commentary, Pulpit commentary..... They all failed! 2. Br Lee's misconception Br. Lee was also in the misconception that this event occured when men believed in the Lord Jesus. Then, we have br Lee's explanations. Do you see he is not a little struggling? I would now like to call your attention to the fact that in verse 30 all of the verbs are in past tense. Let us read this verse once again. gAnd whom He predestinated, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified.h Since glorification will occur in the future, why does Paul say gglorifiedh and not gHe will glorifyh? Although glorification has not yet occurred, Paul uses the past tense. What does this mean? Once again we see that if we only read the Bible according to the black and white letters we will get into difficulty. I ask you, has glorification been accomplished? Why does the Apostle Paul here say gglorifiedh? Have you been glorified? The Bible says that we have been glorified already. Everything mentioned in verse 30 is an accomplished fact? predestinated, called, justified, and glorified. There is no problem with saying gpredestinated,h because that was an action performed in the past. We may also say gcalledh; however, many people have not yet been called and we must preach the gospel to them that they may be called. Furthermore, although we have been justified, many new converts will be justified. Moreover, none of us, including Paul himself, has been glorified. Nevertheless, Paul put everything in the past tense. (Romans Life Study M21) |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||
| B. One new man(Eph2:15) Eph2:15 Abolishing in His flesh the law of the commandments in ordinances, that He might create the two in Himself into one new man, so making peace, 1.Composition of Paul's logic here(2:11-22) @vv14-18 are insert statement. @Main line is v11-13,v19-22(see below) In 2:11-13 Paul says the situation of the Gentiles with no hope. But in Christ Jesus they were made near in the blood of Christ. Then he explains how Christ made them near in v14-18. The two were created into one new man and both were reconciled in one body the private body of Christ and the one new man as one Spirit coming to the both and they have access unto the Father. As a result, the Gentiles are no longer strangers and sojouners but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God. And they grow into a holy temple and into a dwelling place of God. Here, Paul has not any other intention than to make the Gentiles near to God and the family of God. What is one new man? One new man is Christ Himself, but the Christ involving into Himself gobjective weg that is those who had been involved into His private body since His incarnation. What is one Spirit? It is one new man Himself and the Spirit. And, it includes gobjective weg in itself. It means the Spirit includes human beings in itself.
2. Br. Lee's misconception a. "the two" V15 says, that He might create the two in Himself into one new man, Br Lee took "the two" to be the Jews and the Gentiles living on the earth "subjective we", so he considered the one new man to be the church on the earth. But "the two" were not so but those that had been involved in the private body of Christ siince His incarnation the gobjective weg. b. "by it" The last words of v16 are "by it". It means by the cross. And v16 is as follows, 16 And might reconcile both in one Body to God through the cross, having slain the enmity by the cross. The cross is mentioned for two times. It's apparently odd and strange. But amazingly most of the Bibles take this translation including RCV. Incredible! NLT, ESV, BSB, NASB, KJV, HCS, ASV, DBT, ERV, GWT. ISR, ISV, KJP, NET, OJB, WEB, WBT, RSV, NRSV, MSG, and RCV(21). And Jp translations(5) are all this translation, RCVjp is included in them. Only DRB(Douay-Rheims Bible) translates "in himself". "By it" is "en autw" in Greek. So, "by it" is wrong, "in it" is correct. It must be "in one body" in the private body of Christ. So, v16 must be, 16 And might reconcile both in one Body to God through the cross, having slain the enmity in it. That is, 16 And might reconcile both in one Body to God through the cross, having slain the enmity in one Body. The enmity in one Body means that the Jews and the Gentiles in the private body of Christ had the enmity against God. Therefore when Christ was killed, the Jews and the Gentiles were also killed, and the enmity within them were automatically killed. And then both the Jews and the Gentilse were reconciled to God. This is the correct translation of v16, I believe. 3. Is one new man the church? One new man is not the church, but Christ Himself and the Christ including gobjective weg in His body. 4. What is one Spirit(v18)? One Spirit is one new man Himself coming to the Jewish and Gentile believers on the earth the "subjective we" to make them one for the building up of the church unto the holy temple and dwelling place of God in human spirit(vv19-22). |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||
| C. Surpassing riches of His grace(Eph 2:7) Eph2:7 That He might display in the ages to come the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 1. Br. Lee's words in his LSM21 of Ephesians
2.Br. Lee's misconception In his word, we find no relation to the previous verses v5 and v6. He speaks only his general understanding of grace here. If he had had the idea of gobjective weg, he would have found out something relative from the previous verses. 3. What is the surpassing riches of His grace? Paul does not exlain directly what it is. But we can see what it is, looking around the verses. Paul does sometimes similarly. For instance "one Spirit(v18)", he suddenly uses this word with no explanation. And "all the fullness(Col1:19)", also he says suddenly using this word and say no word of relation with other verses. So, his words are difficult to understand. Now, look at just the previous verses 4-6. He says, 4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5 Even when we were dead in offenses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved) 6 And raised us up together with Him and seated us together with Him in the heavenlies in Christ Jesus, Here, Through God's being rich in mercy, because of His great love, God made us alive together with Christ ... and seated us together with Him in heavenlies in Christ Jesus. Then a union of Christ with "us" (this "us" is of course gobjective weg) came into existence. This Christ is unique for He involved the gobjective weg into His resurrected being. Yes, He had involved gobjective weg within Him the "we" as old men the sinful beings. But the gobjective weg in His resurrection are now in the heavenlies and glorified(Rom8:30) and they are ultimately consummated being. This being is the surpassing riches of His grace. And please take care. God's being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, is of course unto us the gobjective weg. Then the union of Christ and gobjective weg came into existence. This union itself is the surpassing riches of His grace. And you and we the "subjective we" on the earth are saved by this grace through the faith(v8). Br. Lee could not know about the unique union of Christ is the grace, the surpassing riches of His grace, even though he had the great light of revelation below. But he did not apply this recognition to the epistles, for instance on this verse. It's a big mystery! The humanity the "we" involved within the body of Christ, I call gobjective weg. See below (red part).
But why surpassing riches of grace? v4,5 say 4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, 5 Even when we were dead in offenses, made us alive together with Christ.... Here you find "us" in these verses, these "us" are gobjective weg, not "us" on the earth the "subjective we". And the situation of "us" were same as that of gobjective weg (old man) that had been involved in the private body of Christ. But God, being rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in offenses, made us alive together with Christ.... And the surpassing riches of His grace, the union of Christ with gobjective weg in resurrection came into existence. By this grace we and you the "subjective we" are saved in v7. What do you think about the bracketed phrase (by grace you have been saved)? He seems indicating, "This is the grace, this union is the grace by whom you are saved". |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||
| D. All the fullness(Col 1:20) Col 1:19 For in Him He was pleased all the fullness to dwell 20 And through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross -- through Him, whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens. 21 "And you, though once alienated and enemies in your mind because of your evil works," 22 "He now has reconciled in the body of His flesh through death, to present you holy and without blemish and without reproach before Him;" 1. Who was pleased? Col 1:19 For in Him He was pleased all the fullness to dwell I modified v19 as above and "He" may be God or the Son who was pleased for all the fullness to dwell in the Son . 2. What is all the fullness? Br. Lee says in his LSM10 of Colossians, "The fullness is God Himself expressed"(LSM10). I believe all the fullness must be spoken and be considered in relation to the reconciliation of all things(v20). From the context in v.19 and 20, all the fullness must be all things which were reconciled into Him and made peace through the blood of Christ. 2-1. "And" at the head of v20 This "and" may be translated as "that is" or "namely". Because, the writer is going to explain what all the fullness is and how it came into existence. Things spoken in v.19 and in v.20 are the same thing in essence. V.19 is spoken again in v.20 in another words. 2-2. through Him to reconcile all things to (into) Himself, Concerning "to Himself", "to" is Greek preposition "eis", so "into" is better. Here it has a thought not only of reconciliation but also of a union, the union of the Son with all thinngs. (See note 1 below) The Son Jesus reconciled all things into His physical body and He came into union with these all things in His resurrection. The phrase "in Him all the fullness should dwell" in v.19 and "through Him to reconcile all things into Himself," in v.20 are the same in essence. That is, by reconciling all things in His flesh since His incarnation, the Son is going to make all things unto all the fullness. 2-3. having made peace through the blood of His cross The method to reconcile all things was to make peace through the blood of the Son on the cross. Then through the redemption, that is, through the reconciliation all things were made all the fullness into the union with the Son Jesus Christ in His resurrection(v19). 2-4. whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens. Not only the things on the earth but also the things in the heavens were necessary to be reconciled. In the OT, this story is typified by the tabernacle of Moses. The cherubim signifying all things was woven on the veil. The veil was split when Jesus was crucified. Death of all things with Christ. And on the mercy seat in the Holly of Hollies were two golden beaten cherubim the glory.(ref. 2) This signifies that all things through the cross of Christ are now in the glory and one with Christ. And in Revelation chapter four, all the redeemed things are in the midst of and around the throne. These living things are giving thanks to Him to be redeemed. (RCV. foot note 4:9-1(note 2)(ref. 3)) 2-5. We were also reconciled. 1) "And" at the head of v21 1:21 "And you, though once alienated and enemies in your mind because of your evil works," Again here is "and" at the head of v21. It means that this verse is the continuation from the previous verse. The writer Paul saying "And you", now he turns his eyes to us the human beings the members of all things and speaks especially about our reconciliation. Of course this "you" are all the chosen people including the writer himself. The state of "you" were like these. These are the state of the "objective we" in the flesh of Christ two thousand years ago as written in Eph.2:1-5. Not the state of us "subjective we" on the earth as unbelievers before believing in the savior Jesus. This is clear from the context. Paul is now writing about Christ's work of reconciliation in His flesh two thousand years ago from today. 2). We the gobjective weg were reconciled. 1:22 "He now has reconciled in the body of His flesh through death, to present you holy and without blemish and without reproach before Him;" Paul continues to speak about the reconciling work of Christ that He reconciled us in the body of His flesh through death just as He did to all things. He had involved us the 'objective we' in His flesh, so He could reconcile us in the body of His flesh through death. 3). holy and without blemish and without reproach Some of you may think these are our future accomplishment. But I say no, but a past event of our accomplished at His resurrection and ascension. Because these are the completed matters in His reconciling work. 4). to present (parasteesai) It means to place beside or near. This is the infinitive of paristeemi, to place you. I ask you, what is the time of "to place you", in the future or in the past? The matter "to place you holy and without blemish and without reproach before Him" is in the future matter or in the past? This is the matter for the "objective we" and a completed matter in the past. 5). before Him (katenwpion autou) It means before the face of, before the presence of, in the sight of, before-- autou: Who is this "of him"? From the context it denotes "the Son of His love"(Col.1:13), Christ Jesus. Therefore, this verse will be translated: He the Son now has reconciled in the body of His flesh through death, and He placed you the "objective we" holy and without blemish and without reproach before Him, the Son. He reconciled us the "objective we" into Himself through His crucifixion, resurrection and ascension and now the "objective we" are now in the heavens standing holy, and blameless, and above reproach in front of Him and in Him. 2-6. What then, is all the fullness? All the fullness is all things whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens including gobjective weg being reconciled through the blood of the Son's cross into Himself. 3. Br. Lee's misconception 1. He could not define all the fullness in relation to all things, but only "The fullness is God Himself expressed"(LSM10). 2. He did not see all the fullness is concerned from v19 to v22. These verses are one set. Notes and ref.
|
|||||||||||||||||||||||||
| E. The Spirit Eph 2:18 For through Him we both have access in one Spirit unto the Father. 1.Definition a. General understanding According to br Lee, the Spirit is the processed and ultimately consummated triune God. b. New understanding But as you know one Spirit(Eph.2:18) and the surpassing riches of His grace(2:7) do include the gobjective weg. So, I must say that the Spirit is defined as follows. The Spirit is the processed and ultimately consummated triune God plus all the fullness. All the fullness is all things including gobjective weg in it that were reconciled into Christ through His blood.iCol. 1:19 -22j 2. Br. Lee's misconception: A wall of discontinuity(see the chart below) Christ involved all things into His body of flesh in His incarnation and went through His human living crucifixion, resurrection, and ascension. And a unique union of Him with all things including gobjective weg came into existence(Eph 2:5-6, 2:15, 2:18...) But according to br Lee's definition, the Spirit comes as the triune God only. This is an apparent contradiction. The Spirit should also include all the fullness in Itself.
2017/8/8 “Œ M’j(Higashi Nobuo) ftmp2009(atmark)gmail.com |
|||||||||||||||||||||||||